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      08-18-2015, 04:57 PM   #1
808@702
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Tire wear question

So I have the BMW tire and rim insurance built into my financing. I made a claim for a nail in my left rear which was covered by the insurance no problem. When I went in to pick up my car the service ticket stated that the right rear was below BMW allowable wear tolerances (-5/32" I think). Basically she said that if I have a claim for the tire the insurance will no longer cover it because of the tire wear. My question is, the wear on the tire is nowhere close to the wear bars on the tire. Do I have an argument with BMW on this if I need to make a claim?
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      08-18-2015, 09:58 PM   #2
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I'm confused. When you say it was covered by the insurance no problem, is this BMW insurance or third party? Who "approved" the claim, "no problem". Excessive wear is built into most policies so nothing unusual there but need to figure what's going on. The 5/32 on the right tire should have nothing to do with the nail in the left tire...

After re-reading I understand. But again, the dealer needs to show you the tread depth on the left tire, the tire that actually had the nail in it. You also need to pull your contract and read the tire wear stipulations in that contract. All tire insurance has a tread depth minimum where they basically say the tire is shot already so no pay-out for a new tire...
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      08-26-2015, 08:54 AM   #3
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The wear bars are at 2/32", which is the legal minimum. Replacement is often recommended around 4/32" if wet weather is a factor in your driving. So I'm not that surprised to hear that BMW is recommending replacement the tire if it is in fact below 5/32".

As kscarrol said, you should read the actual contract for the wheel/tire insurance. They can write whatever they want on the service ticket, but if push comes to shove it's whats in the original contract that matters.

Ideally, you wouldn't want to run around with one brand new tire and one that's getting to the end of its life. So the optimum solution would be to replace that tire anyway.
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