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      02-26-2011, 10:06 AM   #293
bruce.augenstein@comcast.
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Quote:
Originally Posted by swamp2 View Post
NO, you can not. Patently false. Key statement - with identical drivetrain inertia - that means all of the rotational inertia of the entire drivetrain from flywheel to wheels sum to the same total inertia. If this is true then you can make some accurate a priori predictions. However for any two cars that is quite unlikely.
Time to rewind, as is often the case between us in our "discussions".

I was assuming identical drivetrain inertia between the two cars. With that the case, the 8000 rpm will accelerate more slowly than the 4000 rpm car.

Quote:
Originally Posted by swamp2 View Post
I never said that was the prediction from CarTest. In fact the predictions are close but not identical. The biggest difference is in 1st gear which makes sense. Also I did not use a totally flat torque curve for a quick investigation of this. Like I said, more investigation is required. Stop jumping to conclusions.
Deal.

Quote:
Originally Posted by swamp2 View Post
And the predictions from Quarter Jr. then for this 4000/8000 rpm case are? Since that tool does not have control over rotational inertia is must be total crap.... I don't really believe that, but I'm playing your part for you.
No way to model this in Quarter, Jr. You get to key in displacement, max power @ rpm, and the shift point. That's it for the engine. Forget torque or any type of power curve.
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