Originally Posted by TiAg335i
It would be pretty rare to happen. I mean, you would REALLY have to try and infect your genitals with virions from cold sore lesions - like a chick with a cold sore giving you head.
HSV-1 is the virus that gives rise to cold sores so maybe it would be less effective in giving rise to the genital herpes which are normally caused by HSV-2. This is assuming you have antibodies to the cold sore virus which most people do.
I'm not a virologist so take that with a grain of salt.
I think its more of a yes and no type deal. While 1 is generally considered to be above the belt and 2 is generally considered to be below the belt, a person can get either infection in either location. 2 is more severe. If you have 2, orally, chances are its bad. If you have 1 genitally, you'll most likely have less severe infections. I'm no doctor but this is how its been explained to me in my pathology classes.