Originally Posted by ganeil
You are the one who brought it up. Remember, "OK, lets be realistic now... Why is Israel "returning" the areas to Palestinians. Word "return" implies previously taken. Remember, there used to be this land called Palestine, that was erased in 1948."?
Again...we have heard of the areas being returned to Palestinians...over past few years. Why is that if they never existed? Why is Israel accepting to give up on aza strip, West Bank, Golan Heights, etc. if it is so clear that it all belongs to Israel and that never belonged to someone else. Pretty much not so.
On the other hand, youyou questioned that since the state of Palestine never existed, why ewould they (logically) exist now. I just gave him clear examples that support the logic not always working...