Originally Posted by MrSilver
Question: Where does the Constitution grant protection to non-citizens who made calls from a foreign nation?
In the United States people have a reasonable expectation to privacy that is protected by the 4th Amendment. The 4th explicitly provides for:
"the right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized."
So if the Government wants to tap phones, there is a legal mechanism for them to do so... it is called a warrant.
Otherwise any information they derive from an unlawful search and seizure will be fruit of the poisonous tree and will be inadmissible at trial as per the Exclusionary Rule.
I don't have a problem with the U.S. government wiretapping calls that are taking place outside of our borders. It is called spying.
But if they want to tap calls originating from inside the United States, they had better damn well have a warrant to do so.
What the F is wrong with you???
Everything Bush and co. do is correct. You don't need the proof and approval for it. If O'Reiley supports it, it must be correct. And even if the constitution says it -- it is wrong because W did not write it.
And if you don't like it you should be disbarred, and you're no a patriot.
Shame on you.
Ah, what is next -- he will change the rule that once elected -- stays in the office till death...
Horrible future ahead of us...